中科院博士研究生学位英语考试样题|江阴雨辰互联

2024年3月16日发(作者：)

中国科学院研究生院博士研究生学位英语考试样题

Sample Test

NON-ENGLISH MAJOR DOCTORATE

ENGLISH QUALIFYING EXAMINATION (DET)

PAPER ONE

Part I Listening Comprehension (35 minutes, 30 points)

Section A

Directions: In this part, you will hear 10 short conversations. At the end of each

conversation, a question will be asked about what is said. Each

conversation and the question will be spoken only once. When you hear

the question, read the four choices of the answer given and choose the

best one by marking the corresponding letter A, B, C, or D on your

Answer Sheet I.

1. A. Go back home.

B. Mail a letter.

C. Do the shopping.

D. Ask the way.

2. A. Dennis always alters his idea about an outing.

B. Dennis has no choice but to come with them.

C. It’s surprising that Dennis would come with them.

D. Dennis at last accepted the idea about going out.

3. A. Go out for fun with the girl.

B. Travel with the girl to Holland.

C. Try not to spend so much money.

D. Let the girl pay her own bill.

4. A. The man should reschedule the trip.

B. She has no idea when the semester ends.

C. She’ll call the travel agency to confirm the date.

D. The man should spend his holidays somewhere else.

5. A. He forgot to mail the letter.

B. He left the letter in his office.

C. The letter slipped off his desk.

D. He should have put the letter in his bag.

6. A. He was exhausted.

B. He was drunk.

C. He was worried.

D. He was late for work.

7. A. In a mall.

B. In a pharmacy.

C. In the cleaner’s.

D. In a department store.

8. A. The woman argued for her innocence at court.

B. The woman complained that she was forced to pay the fine.

C. The woman has got away with many violations of traffic law.

D. The woman pleaded ignorance this time of her violation of the traffic law.

9. A. Jack has to meet a tight deadline.

B. Jack has completed his assignment

C. Jack got himself burnt last night.

D. Professor David is a pleasant figure.

10 A. He does not like Beth.

B. He thinks the world is too crowded.

C. He is too excited to do anything about the party.

D. He will not help arrange for the party.

Section B

Directions: In this part, you will hear two mini-talks. While you listen, complete the

sentences in your Answer Sheet II for Questions 11 to 20 by writing NO

MORE THAN THREE WORDS in each sentence. You will hear each talk

or conversation TWICE.

Questions 11 to 15 are based on a talk about the concept of community.

You now have 30 seconds to read Questions 11 to 15.

11. A village, or town, or ____________ can be called an area of social life.

12. The speaker states that it is ____________ that people in a community should

have the sense of belonging together.

13. In some countries ____________ form islands of their own peculiar life.

14. The speaker holds that community means any circle of _______.

15. When we use the term “____________” rather than “society”, we should think of

something greater than organization.

You now have 30 seconds to check your answers to Questions 11 to 15.

Questions 16 to 20 are based on an interview about “global warming.”

You now have 30 seconds to read Questions 16 to 20.

16. Scientists want to know whether global warming is caused by __________.

17. Insulation may cause the Earth to ___________.

18. There are many _________on the global climate.

19. The _________does not remain static.

20. We can not understand the global climate well without understanding _____.

You now have 30 seconds to check your answers to Questions 16 to 20.

Section C

Directions: In this part, you will hear three mini-talks and each of them will be spoken

only once. While listening to them, read the questions that follow each

talk. At the end of each mini-talk you will hear the questions read to you.

There will be a 40-second-pause after each question. During the pause,

you will be asked to write down your answer on your Answer Sheet II,

using one sentence only, either complete or incomplete. Your answer

should be concise and to the point.

Questions 21 to 23 are based on Mini-talk One:

Mini-talk One

Question 21: How much grain do rats destroy each year in India?

Question 22: Where do rats live?

Question 23: How do rats spread diseases indirectly?

Questions 24 to 26 are based on Mini-talk Two:

Mini-talk Two

Question 24: What education does the vast majority of US Postal Service jobs require?

Question 25: Where can one find the special requirements for some postal jobs?

Question 26: In addition to the variety of paid leave, what other benefits are provided for

a postal employee? (List at least two.)

Questions 27 to 30 are based on Mini-talk Three:

Mini-talk Three

Question 27: Why is popular art said to be primarily entertainment?

Question 28: What is the distinction in art between a professional and an amateur?

Question 29: How does high art differ from popular art financially?

Question 30: What are people interested in high art often required to do?

Part II Use of English and Reading Comprehension (55 minutes, 40 points)

Section A

Directions: There are 15 blanks in the following passage. Read the passage carefully

and fill in each of the blanks by choosing the right word or phrase from

the list given below. Write your answer on the Answer Sheet II. Capitalize

the word when it is necessary. The words and phrases listed are twice as

many as the blanks. Once a word or phrase is chosen, it must be used only

once.

challenged, precede, destroyed, such as, estimated, like, discern,

separated, fortunately, continue, overcome, regrettably, exceeded, ever,

yet, as, continuous, following, balanced, simultaneously, when, feasible,

adversely accompanying, instantaneously, transforming, once, than,

that, while

Many of the most damaging and life-threatening types of weather—torrential

rains, severe thunderstorm, and tornadoes—began quickly, strike suddenly, and

dissipate rapidly, devastating small regions 31 leaving neighboring areas untouched.

One such event, a tornado, struck the northeastern section of Edmonton, Alberta, in

July 1987. Total damages from the tornado 32 $ 250 million, the highest 33 for

any Canadian storm. Conventional computer models of the atmosphere have limited

value in predicting short-lived local storms 34 the Edmonton tornado, because the

available weather data are generally not detailed enough to allow computers to discern

the subtle atmospheric changes that 35 these storms. In most nations, for example,

weather-balloon observations are taken just 36 every twelve hours at locations

typically 37 by hundreds of miles. With such limited data, conventional forecasting

models do a much better job predicting general weather conditions over large regions

38 they do forecasting specific local events. Until recently, the

observation—intensive approach needed for accurate, very short-range forecasts, or

“Nowcast”, was not 39 . The cost of equipping and operating many thousands of

conventional weather stations was prohibitively high, and the difficulties involved in

rapidly collecting and processing the raw weather data from such a network were

insurmountable. 40 , scientific and technological advances have 41 most of these

problems. Radar systems, automated weather instruments, and satellites are all capable

of making detailed, nearly 42 observations over large regions at a relatively low

cost. Communications satellites can transmit data around the world cheaply and 43 ,

and modern computers can quickly compile and analyze this large volume of weather

information. Meteorologists and computer scientists now work together to design

computer programs and video equipment capable of 44 raw weather data into

words, symbols, and vivid graphic displays that forecasters can interpret easily and

quickly. 45 meteorologists have begun using these new technologies in weather

forecasting offices, nowcasting is becoming a reality.

Section B (30minutes, 15 points)

Directions: Read the following passages carefully and then select the best answer from

among the four choices given to answer each of the questions or complete

each of the statements that follow each passage. Mark the letter of your

choice on your Answer Sheet I.

Passage 1

For centuries, the gravel and sand of Georges Bank and the great canyons, muddy

basins, and shallow ledges of the Gulf of Maine have supported one of the world’s

most productive fishing regions. But big boulders have historically protected a

1050-square-kilometer region at the bank’s northeastern tip from dredging boats in

search of scallops and trawlers hunting down groundfish. However, those boulders are

becoming less of a deterrent against improved and sturdier gear. So when geologist

Page Valentine of the U.S. Geological Survey in Woods Hole, Massachusetts, stood

before his colleagues last month and defended his proposal to safeguard this rare,

undisturbed gravel bed, he knew that he was also standing at the crossroads of science

and politics.

Valentine’s presentation was part of a 2-day workshop held at the New England

Aquarium here to build support for Marine Protected Areas (MPAs), a controversial

concept aimed at preserving biodiversity in coastal waters. The meeting, organized by

Elliott Norse, founder of the Marine Conservation Biology Institute in Redmond,

Washington, featured talks by 21 experts across a range of marine habitats and species

and represented the marine community’s biggest push for MPAs.

The discussion generated a map that nominated 29% of the ocean floor off the

coast of New England and Canada’s Maritime Province for protection, as well as 25%

of pelagic (open-ocean) waters. The next step will come in the fall, when the scientists

discuss the plan with government officials, commercial stakeholders, and

environmental activists—meetings that are likely to be contentious. “The conservation

groups will want to see if various species are covered. And various fishermen will be

convinced that their livelihood is threatened,” says Mike Pentony, an analyst for the

New England Fishery Management Council, who was an observer at last month’s

workshop. The areas could be established by the National Marine Fisheries Service or

under existing U.S. and Canadian laws to protect endangered species and habitats.

46. Which of the following can be the best title of the passage?

A. Fishery Industry in New England.

B. Plan to Protect Coastal waters of New England.

C. Restoration of Marine Life in the Gulf of Maine.

D. Problems Critical to Ecological Balance in Georges Bank.

47. The abundance of fish in the area has been a result of ________.

A. the perpetual fishery closure

B. the stringent ban on overfishing

C. the effective fishery management

D. its unique geographic features

48. Boulders used to be a deterrent to ________.

A. scallop

B. groundfish

C. fishing boats

D. improved gear

49. At the two-day workshop, the scientists reached an agreement on ______.

A. the marine areas to be preserved

B. how to rescue the endangered species

C. the guarantee of the fishermen’s livelihood

D. what to discuss with the government officials

50. Which of the following CANNOT be concluded from the last paragraph?

A. The fishermen will be worried about their livelihood.

B. A decision is soon to be made on the protected areas.

C. Commercial stakeholders may be at odds with scientists.

D. Conflicting interests will arise between fishermen and scientists.

Passage 2

Some people are accustomed to thinking that facts must either be believed or they

must be disbelieved—as if beliefs were like a light switch with only two positions, on

or off. My use of the bathtub hoax is intended to illustrate that belief does not have to

operate as a simple yes or no choice, all or nothing. Belief can be more conditional; it

can be something that we decide to have “up to a point.” And so, the question we might

ask ourselves while reading does not have to be “Should I believe it or not?” but

instead can be “How much should I believe it?” This later question implies that the

belief we have in any given fact, or in any given idea, is not determined by whether it

sounds right or whether the source is an authority. It means that our beliefs are

determined by the reasons that justify them. Belief is not a mechanical action, brought

about by invariable rules of nature. It is a human activity, the exercise of judgment.

With this in mind, we might say that we perform this action better when we know what

the reasons are that have led to our belief, and why they are good reasons.

These observations do not deprive us of our ability to believe in what we read.

They are not intended to transform you from credulous believers into stubborn

doubters. The process of weighing beliefs against the quality of reasons is one that you

already go through all the time, whether you are aware of it or not. We all do. The

practice of critical reading is the exercise of this kind of judgment on purpose. By

doing it, we protect ourselves from being led into belief for inadequate reasons, but at

the same time we open up our minds to the possibility of arriving at belief for adequate

ones. If we decide to grant or withhold consent based on the quality of the reasons that

we are given we admit at the same time that two things are possible: We admit that we

might consent less in the future if we discover that the reasons are not so good after all;

and we admit that we might consent more if we are ever presented with better reasons

than we had formerly known. This attitude is not pure skepticism any more than it is

pure credulity. It is somewhere in between. It is the attitude of an open-minded thinker,

of someone who wishes to be responsible for deciding for herself or himself what to

believe.

51. The author’s use of the bathtub hoax is meant to suggest that __________.

A. facts must be believed unconditionally

B. belief is more than a simple yes or no choice

C. nothing should be believed or disbelieved

D. belief is nothing but a light switch

52. To believe or disbelieve what you read should be based on ________.

A. the facts that you are given

B. whether the author is an open-minded authority

C. the quality of reasons provided by the material

D. the assumption that you know everything about it

53. As a human activity, weighing the facts about something is actually _______.

A. determined by the rules of nature

B. a performance

C. brought about even at birth

D. experienced by everyone

54. According to the author, which of the following is true?

A. Our attitude toward what we read may change if we are given more reasons.

B. An open-minded thinker is responsible for what he or she says.

C. Critical reading can make us believe more in what we read.

D. We ought to question the value of what we read if its source is not

authoritative.

55. What is the topic of this passage?

A. Judgment and Responsibility.

B. Reading and Belief.

C. Trust and Faith.

D. Reading and Human Activity.

Passage 3

Things don’t come easily to Matteo, a 4-year-old New Yorker with brown bangs

and cowboy bandanna. Afflicted by cerebral palsy, he moves awkwardly. He thinks

slowly and doesn’t talk much. Small frustrations upset him terribly. But when Matteo

visits Clive Robbins, his music therapist, he bangs gleefully on a snare drum, placing

one hand on the rim to steady himself, he uses the other to rap in tempo to Robbins’s

improvised song. As the tune progresses, Matteo moves his act to the piano, banging

along with one or two fingers and laughing excitedly. By following the rhythm, he is

learning to balance his body and coordinate the movement of his limbs. He’s also

learning to communicate. “He is grown much more motivated and intent,” says

Robbins, the co-founder of New York University’s Nordoff-Robbins Center for Music

Therapy.

Disabled children aren’t the only ones feeling the therapeutic power of music. A

79-year-old stroke survivor listens to Viennese waltzes on his headphones to help him

to relearn to walk. A woman in labor had LeAnn Rimes’ country tunes blaring from a

stereo to help her keep in step with her contraction. And, yes, ostensibly healthy people

are listening to airy New Age discs, and maybe lighting a candle or two, to lessen stress

and promote well-being. They may all be on to something. Mounting evidence suggests

that almost any musical stimulus, from Shostakovich to the Spice Girls can have

therapeutic effects.

Music therapy isn’t mainstream health care, but recent studies suggest it can

have a wide range of benefits. In 1996, researchers at Colorado State University tried

giving 10 stroke victims 30 minutes of rhythmic stimulation each day for three weeks.

Compared with untreated patients, they shared significant improvements in their

ability to walk steadily. People with Parkinson’s disease enjoyed similar benefits. A

musical beat from any genre seemed to provide a rhythmic cue, stimulating the brain’s

motor systems.

Other body systems seem equally responsive. Scottish researchers have found,

for example, that a daily dose of Mozart or Mendelssohn significantly brightens the

moods of institutionalized stroke victims. Using psychological tests, the Scottish team

showed that patients receiving 12 weeks of daily music therapy were less depressed

and anxious, and more stable and sociable, than other patients in the same facility.

Music therapy has also proved useful in the management of Alzheimer’s and other

neurological diseases. And Deforia Lane, a music therapist at University Hospitals in

Cleveland, has shown that music can boost immune function in children. That’s

consistent with a 1995 finding by Louisiana researchers that preemies exposed to

lullabies in the hospital went home earlier.

56. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?

A. Why Music is Powerful

B. Music and Pain Medication

C. Music and Disabled Children

D. The Medical Power of Music

57. Which of the following statements is right about Matteo?

A. He is suffering a paralysis of the brain.

B. He is late in his ability to walk and talk.

C. He plays music better by taking the advice.

D. He’s ambitious to become a professional drummer.

58. Paragraph 2 mainly tells that ________________.

A. music helps pregnant women undergo contractions

B. music stimulates promotion of people’s well-being

C. music seems to have therapeutic effects on all people

D. sick people benefit a lot from listening to music

59. Based on the author’s description, the Spice Girls is taken as

A. a classic example of music.

B. a typical extreme of music.

C. the most popular musical category.

D. disgusting but having some medical effect.

60. According to the context, the word “preemies” probably means________.

A. sick children coming to see a doctor

B. children with infectious diseases

C. newly recovered young patients

D. premature babies

Section C (10minutes, 10 points)

Direction: In the following passage, five sentences have been removed from the

original text. They are listed from A to F and put below the passage. Choose

the most suitable sentence fro the list to fill in each of the blanks numbered

61 to 65. There is one sentence that does not fit in any of the blanks. Mark

your answers on your Answer Sheet I.

Virtual reality engineers are space makers, to a certain degree they create space for

people to play around in. A space maker sets up a world for an audience to act directly

within, and not just so the audience can imagine they are experiencing a reality, but so

they can experience it directly. “The film maker says, ‘Look, I’ll show you.’” The

space maker says, “Here, I’ll help you discover.” 61 Are virtual reality systems

going to serve as supplements to our lives, or will individuals so miserable in their

daily existence find an obsessive refuge in a preferred cyberspace? What is going to be

included, deleted, reformed, and revised? Will virtual reality systems be used as a

means of breaking down cultural, racial, and gender barriers between individuals and

thus nurture human values? During this century, responsive technologies are moving

even closer to us, becoming the standard interface through which we gain much of our

experience. 62 Instead of a global village, virtual reality may create a global city,

the distinction being that the city contains enough people for groups to form affiliations,

in which individuals from different cultures meet together in the same space of virtual

reality. 63 A special camera, possibly consisting of many video cameras, would

capture and transmit every view of the remote locations. Viewers would receive instant

feedback as they turn their heads. Any number of people could be looking through the

same camera system. Although the example described here will probably take many

years to develop, its early evolution has been under way for some time, with the steady

march of technology moving from accessing information toward providing experience.

64 Virtual Reality is now available in games and movies. An example of a virtual

reality game is Escape From Castle Wolfenstein. In it, you are looking through the eyes

of an escaped POW from a Nazi death camp. You must walk around in a maze of

dungeons where you will eventually fight Hitler. One example of a virtual reality

movie is Stephen King’s The Lawnmower Man. It is about a mentally retarded man

that uses virtual reality as a means of overcoming his handicap and becoming smarter.

He eventually becomes crazy from his quest for power and goes into a computer. From

there he is able to control most of the world’s computers. This movie ends with us

wondering if he will succeed in world domination. From all of this we have learned

that virtual reality is already playing an important part in our world. 65

A. Reality is to trick the human senses, to help people believe and uphold an illusion.

B. The ultimate result of living in a cybernetic world may create an artificial global

city.

C. As well, it is probably still childish to imagine the adoption of virtual reality

systems on a massive scale because the starting price to own one costs about

$300,000.

D. The city might be laid out according to a three dimensional environment that

dictates the way people living in different countries may come to communicate and

understand other cultures.

E. Even though we are quickly becoming a product of the world of virtual reality, we

must not lose touch with the world of reality. For reality is the most important part

of our lives.

F. However, what will the space maker help us discover?

PAPER TWO

Writing (60 minutes, 30 points)

Section A (20 minutes, 10 points)

Directions: Read the following article and write a summary of no more than 150 words

on your Answer Sheet II.

The label of world’s oldest spaceman sat uncomfortably with John Glenn. He

insisted that he was simply another astronaut in the service of science, conducting

experiments aboard the shuttle Discovery. But last week, before returning to Earth, a

relaxed Glenn began to embrace what is likely to be his mission’s most lasting legacy:

a redefinition of our image of aging. The nation’s No. 1 role model for seniority made

jokes and even dispensed a bit of advice about not accepting a dull life (don’ t “live by

the calendar”) in old age.

In a rapidly graying society, Americans are quick to celebrate heroes who defy

stereotypes about aging: Glenn going up in space at 77, George Bush parachuting from

an airplane at 72. We even made best-selling authors out of the Beardstown Ladies

(average age: 70), until it was revealed that their investment returns were only

mediocre. Why were we so eager to assume a bunch of novices could pick stocks better

than a Wall Street pro? Because we want to believe that growing old is not as bad as we

fear.

Many who work with the elderly are reconsidering this adulation of senior

overachievers. “John Glenn has taken us from our fear of aging to a fear of not being

John Glenn in old age,” says Martha Holstein of Chicago’s Park Ridge Center for the

Study of Health, Faith and Ethics. It’s one thing, she says, to knock down stereotypes

that mark the elderly as enfeebled or befuddled. But raising unrealistic standards of

vigor isn’t any better. Historian Theodore Roszak notes that along with the celebration

of Glenn have come paroxysms of press about 90-year-old marathon runners and other

aged mega-athletes. These “supermen images,” says Roszak, author of America the

Wise, a new book about how the swelling ranks of the elderly will benefit America,

give rise to the dangerous notion that “seniors need to achieve at the level of 30- or

40-year-olds” to win respect.

Gerontologists talk about “productive aging,” the notion that one’s 60s and 70s

constitute a new middle age as people live longer and healthier lives. Productive aging,

with its roots in the social movements of the 1960s, began as a counter to prejudice

against the elderly. But such well-intentioned efforts to bring new value to old age

sometimes gloss over the fact that older hearts, lungs, ears, and eyes do start to wear

out. Forty percent of Americans over age 65 have some chronic condition that limits

such simple everyday activities as walking around the block or lifting a bag of

groceries.

One leading proponent of productive aging wants to use what we know about how

proper exercise and diet can forestall illness and physical decline to encourage

Americans to maintain healthier lifestyles. John Rowe of Mount Sinai-New York

University Medical Center, coauthor of the new book Successful Aging, advocates an

incentive program in which Medicare would pay a larger share of medical costs for

individuals who quit smoking, drink moderately, or lose weight. That, he says, would

“enhance the well-being of older people” and also cut the bill for Medicare.

Others worry about creating ideals that the white, wealthy, and educated are most

likely to live up to. The poor, minorities, and often women have the worst health in

late life. A recent study reported in the Journal of the American Medical Association

showed that the death rate among the poorest Americans is three times that of others of

the same age—but not because they lead significantly less healthy lives. Rather, says

Meredith Minkler of the University of California-Berkeley, poverty has “weathering”

or cumulative effects. A woman who spends her life on her feet as a waitress or in some

other physically demanding job—and then maybe also cares for her

grandchildren—winds up in worse health than someone whose white-collar job lets her

pay for membership in a health club.

In reality, old age means to live with both vigor and limits. Barbara Toomer made

that clear last week as she joined protesters in Washington who handcuffed their

wheelchairs together at the doors of the U.S. Department of Health and Human

Services to demand funding to live in their own homes. “We hear how marvelous it is

for John Glenn to be in such great shape” says the 69-year-old Utah activist with

American Disabled for Attendant Programs Today, “but we’re down here fighting to

get everybody out of nursing homes, which is where you’re likely to get placed when

you get old.”

Section B (40 minutes, 20 points)

Direction: Write an essay of no less than 250 words on the topic given below. Use the

proper space on your Answer Sheet II.

Topic: List three important problems facing the world today. Discuss these problems

and offer your suggestions as to how to solve them.

Reference key to Sample Test

NON-ENGLISH MAJOR DOCTORATE ENGLISH QUALIFYING

EXAMINATION (DET)

PAPER ONE

Part I Listening Comprehension

Section A

1－10 C D A DA B C C B D

Section B

11. country

12. inevitable

13. immigrants

14. common life.

15. community

16. human activity /humans.

17. get warmer.

18. influences

19. earth’s temperature

20. (the) oceans.

Section C

Mini-talk One

21: Ten million tons of grain each year.

22: Any place they can get into—homes, shops, farm buildings and farm

and home storage areas.

23: By carrying fleas, mites and other organisms that cause sickness.

Mini-talk

Two

24: Four years of high school or less.

25: Any special requirements will be stated on the announcement of

examination.

26: Retirement support, life insurance and health insurance.

Mini-talk Three

27: Many of them are hits for a few weeks then they disappear.

28: A professional tries to make a living by working in art, while an

amateur does all the artistic work just for pleasure.

29: Popular art usually makes a lot of money, while high art often lacks

funds.

30: To give money to make future performances possible.

Part II Use of English and Reading Comprehension

Section A

31. while 32. exceeded 33. ever 34. like 35. precede

37. separated 38. than 39. feasible 40. fortunately

me uous taneously orming

45. as

Section B

46. B. 47. D. 48. C. 49. A. 50. B.

51. B. 52. C. 53. D. 54. A. 55. B.

56. D. 57. A. 58. C. 59. B. 60. D

Section C

61. F 62. B 63. D. 64 C. 65.E

PAPER TWO

Section A Summary

When retired astronaut John Glenn embarked on another space

mission at the age of 77, he projected a new image of elderly people. The

message was that growing old no longer means becoming ill, feeble and

useless. Some social scientists are now talking about a “new middle age” for

those in their sixties and seventies, as people are now living longer and

healthier lives. But the concern is that the Glenn image sets unrealistic

standard for most elderly people, making them lose social respect if they

cannot live up to it. (93 words)

Section B Essay

(omitted)

Script For Sample Test

Sample Test

NON-ENGLISH MAJOR DOCTORATE ENGLISH QUALIFYING

EXAMINATION (DET)

PAPER ONE

Part I Listening Comprehension (35 minutes, 30 points)

Section A

Directions: In this section, you will hear 10 short conversations. At the end of each

conversation,a question will be asked about what is said. Each

conversation and the question will be spoken only once. When you hear the

question, read the four choices of the answer given and choose the best

one by marking the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your Answer

Sheet I.

1. W: Hey, don’t forget to mail the letter by air mail for me on your way home.

M: Sure, I’ll do that, but I’ll pick up some groceries first.

Q: What will the man probably do first? (pause 00’15

”

)

2 W: Dennis called to say he’d come to the picnic.

M: Changed his mind after all, did he?

Q: What does the man mean? (pause 00’15

”

)

2. M: Mom, I got to know a pretty girl last week. I’ve been taking her out. Will you

send me a thousand dollars right away?

W: You don’t have to pay all the time. Men and women are equal. Why don’t you

go Dutch?

Q: What is the advice given by the woman? (pause 00’15

”

)

4. M: I just called the travel agency. It’s all set. On June the first, I’m heading for the

mountains and spend a week there.

W: You mean tomorrow? Have you checked the academic calendar? Our classes

aren’t over till the sixth.

Q: What does the woman imply? (pause 00’15

”

)

5. W: Did you send the letter for me this morning on your way to the office?

M: Sorry, it just slipped my mind.

Q: What does the man mean? (pause 00’15

”

)

6. W: How was the party last night?

M: It was fantastic. But I seemed to have had one too many. That’s why I still have

a hangover this morning.

W: Didn’t you say you would limit your drinking?

Q: What was the man's problem? (pause 00’15

”

)

7. M: Can I help you?

W: Yes. I’ve got four shirts here and two pairs of pants and a jacket. I’m leaving

town in a few days. So, can I pick them up tomorrow?

M: We can have the pants ready, but the shirts won’t be back until Wednesday

morning.

W: Well, that’s Ok.

Q: Where did the conversation take place? (pause 00’15

”

)

8. W: I once got a ticket for running a stop sign, even though I definitely came to a

complete stop.

M: Did you pay the ticket?

W: Yes.

M: If you thought you were innocent, why didn’t you contest it?

W: Your honor, there have been so many times I didn’t get a ticket for running a

stop sign that I figured this evened things out a little.

Q: What can we learn from the conversation? (pause 00’15

”

)

9. W: Hi, Jack. Heading for the library?

M: Not today. My cousin has just come from Nebraska. I’ll take him to the

baseball Game.

W: What about your essay for anthropology that is due tomorrow? Nobody

expects to get away with Professor David.

M: No worry. That’s why I stayed up last night until I wrapped it up.

W: Lucky you. Enjoy your time then.

Q: What can we learn from the conversation? (pause 00’15

”

)

10. W: Guess what? We bumped into Beth at Woolworth. She just moved into the

neighborhood only three blocks away.

M: It’s a small world, isn’t it? Does she still look as young as she did twelve years

ago?

W: Sure. The amazing thing is that I can hardly find any changes in her. We’d

better throw a welcome party for her. What do you think?

M: Not a bad idea. But just don’t count on me for those party details.

Q: What can we learn about the man? (pause 00’15

”

)

Section B

Directions: In this part, you will hear two mini-talks. While you listen, complete the

sentences in your Answer Sheet II for Questions 11 to 20 by writing

NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in each sentence. You will hear

each talk or conversation TWICE.

Questions 11 to 15 are based on a talk about the concept of community.

You now have 30 seconds to read Questions 11 to 15. (pause 00’30

”

)

“Community” properly signifies any whole area of social life, such as a village, or

town, or country. It is any circle in which a common life is lived, within which people

more or less freely relate themselves to one another in the various aspects of life, and

thus exhibit common social characteristics. It is inevitable that people who over any

length of time enter freely into social relationships should develop social likenesses,

should have some common social ideas, common customs, common traditions, and the

sense of belonging together. A community may be small or great. A great community,

such as a nation, will enclose a number of smaller communities, localities, and groups

with more intense and more numerous common qualities. Small communities are

sometimes semi-isolated in the midst of greater ones, especially in countries to which

immigrants flock and where they form, as it were, islands of their own peculiar life.

Thus it is seen that community is a matter of degree. What we should particularly bear

in mind is that community means any circle of common life; common life is more than

organization or relationship. When we use the term “society” we think more

particularly of organization, but when we use the term “community” we should think of

something greater—the life from which organization springs and of which organization

is but the means.

You now have 30 seconds to check your answers to Questions 11 to 15.

(pause 00’30

”

)

Questions 16 to 20 are based on an interview about “global warming.”

You now have 30 seconds to read Questions 16 to 20. (pause 00’30

”

)

Interviewer: Dr Clarke, global warming was the threat of the 1980s but it seems to

have fizzled out of people’s mind—why do you think that is?

Dr Clarke: Yes, in a way you’re right. I think scientists have become occupied with

the task of trying to find out whether it really is happening and, if so,

whether it’s caused by human activity.

Interviewer: A green house effect is after all, a natural phenomenon…

Dr Clarke: Yes, as we know, natural occurring gases float above us, acting as

insulators that prevent heat being radiated into space.

Interviewer: And the fear is that the insulation might get thicker…

Dr Clarke: Yes…and because of this, the earth might get warmer.

Interviewer: The latest prediction we’ve heard is that temperature will increase by

about a third of a degree every ten year. What are your feelings?

Dr Clarke: Well…this prediction is difficult to make. You see the global climate is the

result of a web of influences. Who is to say that a simple action such as

adding carbon dioxide to the atmosphere will not have several effects,

which might even cancel each other out?

Interviewer: And I understand that the prediction is hard to verify whatever…

Dr Clarke: Precisely.

Interviewer: Why is that?

Dr Clarke: Because the earth’s temperature rises and falls naturally. In fact the best

way of detecting global temperature changes is to measure the

temperature of the oceans as accurately as possible.

Interviewer: And this avoids the sort of seasonal fluctuations of the temperature of

landmass.

Dr Clarke: Yes—in fact an understanding of the oceans is crucial to understanding

how the global climate works. The ocean transports heat around the globe.

It’s like a great reservoir of heat—a tiny change in sea surface temperature

denotes a huge change in the amount of heat it is storing.

You now have 30 seconds to check your answers to Questions 16 to 20.

(pause 00’30

”

)

Section C

Directions: In this part, you will hear three mini-talks and each of them will be spoken

only once. While listening to them, read the questions that follow each talk.

At the end of each mini-talk you will hear the questions read to you. There

will be a 40-second-pause after each question. During the pause, you will

be asked to write down your answer on your Answer Sheet II, using one

sentence only, either complete or incomplete. Your answer should be

concise and to the point.

Questions 21 to 23 are based on Mini-talk One:

Mini-talk One

Rats are one of the world’s most serious threats to public health. These animals eat

human food supplies. They destroy crops and damage other property and they spread

deadly diseases.

Experts say that male and female rat and their babies, born in just one year, eat

enough grain to feed five people for a year. And they damage at least five times more

food than they eat. In India, rats destroy ten million tons of grain each year. In some

African villages, the ugly animals eat ten, twenty, even thirty percent of the food

supply.

Rats will eat almost any kind of grain, fruit, grass, vegetable and meat. And they

will live in any place they can get into—homes, shops, farm buildings and farm and

home storage areas.

Rats spread disease directly by polluting food with their waste. They often bite

people, specially babies. The bites sometimes kill. The animals also spread disease

indirectly by carrying fleas, mites and other organisms that cause sickness. Some

diseases spread by rats to people include the plague, trichinosis, marine typhus and

infectious jaundice.

Question 21: How much grain do rats destroy each year in India? (pause 00’40")

Question 22: Where do rats live? (pause 00’40")

Question 23: How do rats spread diseases indirectly? (pause 00’40"

)

Questions 24

26 are based on Mini-talk Two:

Mini-talk Two

The U.S. Postal Service handles billions of pieces of mail a year, including letters,

magazines, and parcels. Close to a million workers are required to process and deliver

this mail. The vast majority of Postal Service jobs are open to workers with four years

of high school or less.

An applicant for a postal service job must pass an examination and meet

minimum age requirements. Generally, the minimum age is 18, but a high school

graduate may begin work at 16 if the job is not hazardous and does not require use of a

motor vehicle. Many postal Service jobs do not require formal education or special

training. Applicants for these jobs are hired on the basis of their examination scores.

Some postal jobs do have special education or experience requirements, and

some are open only to veterans. Any special requirements will be stated on the

announcement of examination.

Male applicants born after December 31, 1959, unless for some reason they are

exempt, must be registered with the Selective Service System.

Full-time employees work an 8-hour day, 5 days a week. Both full-time and

part-time employees who work more than 8 hours a day or 40 hours a week receive

overtime pay of one and a half times their hourly rate. In addition, pay is higher for

those on the night shift.

Postal employees earn 13 days of annual leave during each of their first 3 years

of service, including prior federal civilian and military service; 20 days each year for 3

to 15 years of service; and 26 days after 15 years. In addition they earn 13 days of paid

sick leave a year regardless of length of service.

Other benefits include retirement support, free group life insurance, and optional

participation in health insurance programs supported in part by the Postal Service.

Most post office buildings are clean and well lit, but some of the older ones are

not. The postal Service is in the process of replacing and remodeling its outmoded

buildings, and conditions are expected to improve.

Most postal workers are members of unions and are covered by a national

agreement between the Postal Service and the unions.

Question 24: What education do the vast majority of US Postal Service jobs require?

(pause 00’40")

Question 25: Where can one find the special requirements for some postal jobs?

(pause 00’40")

Question 26: In addition to the variety of paid leave, what other benefits are provided

for a postal employee? (List at least two.) (pause 00’40")

Questions 27

30 are based on Mini-talk Three:

Mini-talk Three

Art is sometimes divided into two kinds, high art and popular art. High art appeals

to a much smaller proportion of the population than popular art, but the number is large

and growing. People who enjoy high art go to the opera and symphony concerts; they

read serious books; they go to serious plays; they keep up with the art exhibitions at

museums and galleries. Popular art is primarily entertainment. Some TV programs are

meant to be watched today and forgotten tomorrow. Many popular songs are hits for a

few weeks; then they disappear. Other songs remain popular for such a long time that

they became classics. The line between high and popular art is not always clear,

however. Many movies are also taken seriously, while others are dismissed as nothing

more than entertainment.

Another distinction in art is between the professional and the amateur. A

professional tries to make a living by working in art, while an amateur paints, makes

pottery, or plays the piano just for pleasure. Museums, adult education centers, and

private teachers offer a large variety of courses for amateur artists.

Successful movies and TV programs make huge amounts of money, and so do the

performers who appear in them. A few big hits can make a rock musician a millionaire

in a very short time. High art, however, has serious financial problems. It costs more to

put on an opera, concert or ballet than the sale of tickets can bring in. Men and women

interested in high art are always being asked to give money to make future

performances possible. Small government subsidies have also helped to support the

arts in the last few years.

Question 27: Why is popular art said to be primarily entertainment?

(pause 00’40")

Question 28: What is the distinction in art between a professional and an amateur?

(pause 00’40")

Question 29: How does high art differ from popular art financially?

(pause 00’40")

Question 30: What are people interested in high art often required to do?

(pause 00’40")

THIS IS THE END OF LISTENING COMPREHENSION.

中国科学院研究生院标准化考试机读答题纸

姓名______________ 培养单位_________________

考生不填此项,否则试卷作废

学生考号 (左对齐)

P1SB P1SC P2SA P3SA P3SB

试

0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

卷

0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

1 1 1 1

1 1

类

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

2 2 2 2 2

型

2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2

3 3 3 3 3

3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3

4 4 4 4 4

4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4

5 5 5 5 5

5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5

6 6 6 6 6

6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6

7 7 7 7 7

7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7

8 8 8 8 8

8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8

9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9

Part I Listening Comprehension

Section A

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A A A A A A A A A A

B B B B B B B B B B

C C C C C C C C C C

D D D D D D D D D D

Part II Use of English and Reading Comprehension

Section B

46 47 48

A A A

B B B

C C C

D D D

Part II Use of English and Reading Comprehension

Section C

Part I Listening Comprehension (35 minutes, 30 points)

Section B

11. 16.

12. 17.

13. 18.

14. 19.

15. 20.

Section C

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

Part II Use of English and Reading Comprehension (55 minutes, 40 points)

Section A

31. 36. 41. __________________

32. 37. 42. __________________

33. 38. 43. __________________

34. 39. 44. __________________

35. 40. 45. __________________

NON-ENGLISH MAJOR DOCTORATE

ENGLISH QUALIFYING EXAMINATION

ANSWER SHEET II

PAPER TWO

Section A Summary (20 minutes, 10 points)

______________________________________________________________________

Section B Essay (40 minutes, 20 points)

______________________________________________________________________

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